David seduced Bathsheeba – why did Bathsheeba bath in the open
I listened to a radio program on Sunday. The exhortation was about the need for Christians not to yeild to temptation, especially from the opposite sex. With the story of David and Bathsheeba as an unrighteous example: “David seduced Bathsheeba”, my thoughts got running. Here’s Wikipedia’s account of David and Bathsheeba:
The story is told that David, while walking on the roof of his house, saw Bathsheba, who was then the wife of Uriah, taking a bath. He immediately desired her and later made her pregnant.
In an effort to conceal his sin, David summoned Uriah from the army (with whom he was on campaign) in the hope that Uriah would re-consummate his marriage and think that the child is his. Uriah was unwilling to violate the ancient kingdom rule applying to warriors in active service. Rather than go home to his own bed, he preferred to remain with the palace troops.
After repeated efforts to convince Uriah to fertilize Bathsheba, the king gave the order to his general, Joab, that Uriah should be abandoned during a heated battle and left to the hands of the enemy. Ironically, David had Uriah himself carry the message that ordered his death. After Uriah was dead, David made the now widowed Bathsheba his wife. Continue reading: click here
The thoughts on my mind were the following:
why did Bathsheeba bath in an open space….up to the point of being seen by David who was walking on his roof. I want to believe that her husband Uriah had enough resources to provide his wife with a decent abode, much more a good bathroom.
If David could see Bathsheeba from his roof, it could also be concluded that Bathsheeba must have known that she would be seen / spied upon wherever she chose to bath.
did Bathsheeba always bath in this open place where her “glory” would daily be seen / lusted upon by whoever could see her? men walking on their own roofs? didn’t she have any sense of privacy? Whereever she was bathing must have been so open that David saw all he could see and decided to consume his lust.
or perhaps, did Bathsheeba bath in the open purposefully to entice David – perhaps she knew he was at home. There was no account of Bathsheeba and her husband having any children before David “seduced” her. Perhaps she did what she did because she wanted to conceieve, even if it meant enticing King David, as they were obviously not too far neighbors.
giving Bathsheeba the benefit of the doubt of bathing in the open, why didn’t she refuse the invitation to commit adultery with the King. She could have reminded David she had a husband – even at the last minute. While it takes two to tango, her “sleeping with the King” looks like a one day event: “David sent his messengers to bring Bathsheeba, and he lay with her?” no questions asked?
I concluded that as much as David was guilty, Bathsheeba was twice as guilty, and although David was made a scapegoat, Bathsheeba should not have been let to go free. God could have reprimanded her through the prophet(who showed David his sin).
The radio pastor then linked the story with todays women who dress scantily and parade their nakedness up and down – knowing fully well they are attracting lustful attention from the men around them. He mentioned that being tempted is not sinful but yeilding to tempation is the real sin. Now, if yeilding to temptation is the real sin, does this give the tempter the right to go on tempting? If Mr. A tempts Mr. B to eat something poisnous, and Mr. B eats it and dies, why is Mr. A allowed to walk free?
Now the floor is open, let us discuss!
why was Bathsheeba bathing in the open?
was Bathsheeba guilty of adultery? or was she just obedient to the King?
if yeilding to temptation is a sin, are tempters sinful in their tempting attempts?
Your thoughts and opinions are welcome.